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Old 05-26-2019, 12:44 AM
jbrown_9999 jbrown_9999 is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2011
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim2Dokes View Post
Board? That socialist board! You speak in two tounges my friend. You donít also hold that GOP govt in Indiana a bit responsible?

From the internet:

Police officers started to form unions in the early 1900s in conjunction with the labor movement that was sparked by the industrial revolution.

The earliest example of why police officers started to form unions is commonly associated with the Boston Police Department.

Boston police officers did not receive pay increases from 1898 through 1913. In addition, they were often required to work 72 hours per week and pay for their own uniforms.

In 1919, Boston cops unionized affiliated with the American Federation of Labor (AFL).

After unionizing, 17 of the union leaders were suspended, which led to the majority of Bostonís police officers walking off the job. Violence in the city ensued after the walkout and, needless to say, after this occurred police officers were prevented from striking.

Despite this incident police officers would continue to unionize and, as a result, most police officers belong to some sort of collective bargaining unit today.

Our younger officers simply may not know that if it were not for unionization, they would not enjoy many of the benefits (wages, rights and working conditions) they enjoy today.
I never understood why government workers belong to unions. Unions were formed to protect workers from selfish "evil" capitalistic owners who took advantage of their employees. Since government workers work for a benevolent employer that has their best interests at heart, is the only reason that they belong to a union a money grab to force taxpayers to overpay for their services? How come it seems that democratically controlled states have the highest percent of unionized government workers? Do democratically controlled states treat their workers worse than republican controlled states?
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